Latest JN0-480 exam dumps with real Juniper questions and answers [Q29-Q54]

Latest JN0-480 exam dumps with real Juniper questions and answers

JN0-480 Exam in First Attempt Guaranteed

Juniper JN0-480 exam is an ideal certification for network professionals who want to enhance their knowledge and skills in data center networking. Data Center, Specialist (JNCIS-DC) certification is globally recognized and highly valued in the networking industry. JN0-480 exam covers a wide range of topics and the certification can help professionals advance their career in data center networking roles.

 

NEW QUESTION # 29
Which attribute enables Juniper Apstra to scale and manage thousands of devices with a single server instance?

• A. Apstra is installed as a cloud resource.
• B. Apstra is based on NGINX.
• C. Apstra is available as an OVA.
• D. Apstra is a distributed state system.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The attribute that enables Juniper Apstra to scale and manage thousands of devices with a single server instance is that Apstra is a distributed state system. This means that Apstra uses a graph database to store the network topology and configuration data in a distributed and replicated manner across multiple server nodes.
This allows Apstra to handle large-scale networks with high performance, reliability, and availability. Apstra also uses a stateful orchestration engine that ensures the network state is always consistent with the intent of the blueprint, which is the logical representation of thenetwork design and behavior. Apstra can automatically detect and resolve any discrepancies between the desired and actual network state, as well as handle any changes or failures in the network. The other options are incorrect because:
* A. Apstra is installed as a cloud resource is wrong because Apstra can be installed either as a cloud resource or as an on-premises resource. Apstra is available as a virtual machine image that can be deployed on various hypervisors, such as VMware ESXi, QEMU/KVM, Microsoft Hyper-V, or Oracle VirtualBox. Apstra can also be deployed on public cloud platforms, such as Amazon Web Services (AWS) or Microsoft Azure. However, the installation method does not affect the scalability of Apstra, which is determined by the distributed state system architecture.
* B. Apstra is based on NGINX is wrong because Apstra is not based on NGINX, but on Python and Django. NGINX is a web server and reverse proxy that Apstra uses to serve the web user interface and the REST API. However, NGINX is not the core component of Apstra, and it does not affect the scalability of Apstra, which is determined by the distributed state system architecture.
* C. Apstra is available as an OVA is wrong because Apstra is available as an OVF, not an OVA. An
* OVF (Open Virtualization Format) is a standard format for packaging and distributing virtual machine images. An OVA (Open Virtual Appliance) is a single file that contains the OVF and the virtual disk images. Apstra provides an OVF file that can be imported into various hypervisors, such as VMware ESXi, QEMU/KVM, Microsoft Hyper-V, or Oracle VirtualBox. However, the availability of Apstra as an OVF does not affect the scalability of Apstra, which is determined by the distributed state system architecture. References:
* JUNIPER APSTRA ARCHITECTURE
* Apstra Server Requirements/References
* Juniper Networks Apstra 4.0 enhances the experience of users and operators

NEW QUESTION # 30
You have a virtual network that needs controlled access to other virtual networks in the same routing zone.
Using the Juniper Apstra Ul. which feature would be used to accomplish this task?

• A. security policy
• B. anti-affinity policy
• C. interface policy
• D. routing policy

Answer: A

Explanation:
A security policy is the feature that would be used to accomplish the task of controlling access to other virtual networks in the same routing zone using the Juniper Apstra UI. A security policy allows you to define rules that specify which traffic is allowed or denied between different virtual networks, IP endpoints, or routing zones. A security policy can be applied to one or more virtual networks in the same routing zone, and it can use various criteria to match the traffic, such as source and destination IP addresses, protocols, ports, or tags. A security policy can also support DHCP relay, which enables the forwarding of DHCP requests from one virtual network to another. The other options are incorrect because:
* A. interface policy is wrong because an interface policy is a feature that allows you to configure the interface parameters for the devices in a blueprint, such as interface names, speeds, types, or descriptions. An interface policy does not affect the access control between different virtual networks in the same routing zone.
* B. anti-affinity policy is wrong because an anti-affinity policy is a feature that allows you to prevent certain devices or logical devices from being placed in thesame rack or leaf pair in a blueprint. An anti-affinity policy is used to enhance the availability and redundancy of the network, not to control the access between different virtual networks in the same routing zone.
* C. routing policy is wrong because a routing policy is a feature that allows you to configure the routing parameters for the devices in a blueprint, such as routing protocols, autonomous system numbers, route filters, or route maps. A routing policy does not affect the access control between different virtual networks in the same routing zone, unless the routing policy is used to filter or modify the routes exchanged between different routing zones. References:
* Security Policy
* Interface Policy
* Anti-Affinity Policy
* Routing Policy

NEW QUESTION # 31
You must configure a static route for traffic to exit a configured routing zone. In the Juniper Apstra Ul. where would you accomplish this task?

• A. under Active -> Connectivity Templates
• B. under Staged -> Connectivity Templates
• C. under Staged -> Virtual -> Routing Zones
• D. under Active -> Virtual -> Routing Zones

Answer: B

Explanation:
To configure a static route for traffic to exit a configured routing zone, you need to use the Connectivity Templates feature in the Juniper Apstra UI. A Connectivity Template is a set of configuration parameters that can be applied to a device or a group of devices in a blueprint. You can use Connectivity Templates to configure static routes, BGP, OSPF, and other network services. To create a Connectivity Template, you need to go to the Staged tab and select Connectivity Templates from the left menu. Then, you can click on the + icon to create a new template. You can specify the name, description, andscope of the template. The scope determines which devices or device groups the template will be applied to. You can also specify the order of the template, which determines the priority of the template when multiple templates are applied to the same device. After creating the template, you can add configuration items to the template. To add a static route, you need to select Static Route from the drop-down menu and enter the destination network, subnet mask, and next-hop IP address. You can also specify the administrative distance and the track object for the static route.
After adding the configuration items, you need to save the template and commit the changes to the blueprint.
The other options are incorrect because:
* A. under Active -> Virtual -> Routing Zones is wrong because this option allows you to view and modify the existing routing zones, but not to configure static routes for them.
* B. under Staged -> Virtual -> Routing Zones is wrong because this option allows you to create and delete routing zones, but not to configure static routes for them.
* C. under Active -> Connectivity Templates is wrong because this option allows you to view the existing connectivity templates, but not to create or modify them. References:
* Connectivity Templates
* Data Center Automation Using Juniper Apstra

NEW QUESTION # 32
Exhibit.

Referring to the exhibit, what needs to change in the IP fabric to make it a valid IP fabric?

• A. The IP fabric must consist of only one device model throughout the fabric.
• B. The IP fabric connections must be increased to a speed greater than 10 Gbps.
• C. The connection between the two spine nodes must be removed.
• D. The connection between the two spine nodes must be increased to 40 Gbps.

Answer: C

Explanation:
To make the IP fabric a valid IP fabric, the connection between the two spine nodes must be removed. This is because an IP fabric is a network topology that uses a spine-leaf architecture, where the spine devices are only connected to the leaf devices, and the leaf devices are only connected to the spine devices. This creates a non-blocking, high-performance, and scalable network that supports Layer 3 routing protocols such as BGP or OSPF. The connection between the two spine nodes in the exhibit violates the spine-leaf design principle and introduces unnecessary complexity and potential loops in the network. The other options are incorrect because:
* A. The IP fabric must consist of only one device model throughout the fabric is wrong because an IP fabric can support different device models as long as they are compatible and interoperable. The exhibit shows two different models of QFX switches, which are both supported by Juniper Networks for IP fabric deployments.
* B. The connection between the two spine nodes must be increased to 40 Gbps is wrong because increasing the speed of the connection does not make the IP fabric valid. The connection between the two spine nodes should be removed, as explained above.
* C. The IP fabric connections must be increased to a speed greater than 10 Gbps is wrong because the speed of the connections does not affect the validity of theIP fabric. The IP fabric can use any speed that meets the bandwidth and performance requirements of the network. 10 Gbps is a common speed for IP fabric connections, but higher or lower speeds can also be used depending on the network design and devices. References:
* IP Fabric Underlay Network Design and Implementation
* IP Fabric Overview
* IP Fabric: Automated Network Assurance Platform

NEW QUESTION # 33
Which statement is correct about making changes to a predefined device profile in Juniper Apstra?

• A. The processor load on the Apstra server will be negatively impacted when changes are made to a predefined device profile.
• B. The changes you make to a predefined device profile will be discarded and overwritten when upgrading the Apstra server version.
• C. Changing the predefined device profile will also affect deployed devices that use the same profile.
• D. You must reboot the Apstra server after changes are made to a predefined device profile before they will become active.

Answer: B

Explanation:
According to the Juniper documentation1, a predefined device profile is a configuration template that is shipped with Apstra software and supports most qualified Juniper devices. A predefined device profile cannot be changed, since any changes would be discarded and overwritten when you upgrade the Apstra server version. If you want to customize a predefined device profile, you can clone and edit it instead. Therefore, the correct answer is A. The changes you make to a predefined device profile will be discarded and overwritten when upgrading the Apstra server version. References: Edit Device Profile | Apstra 4.2 | Juniper Networks

NEW QUESTION # 34
You are receiving cable, interface, and BGP anomalies from several devices within the data center fabric. In Juniper Apstra. how would you troubleshoot these types of errors?

• A. In the Ul, go to Devices and confirm that agent connectivity is fine.
• B. In the Ul, access the console to the devices and review the interface states.
• C. In the Ul, verify device connectivity by consulting the cable map.
• D. In the Ul, go to Time Voyager and revert to the last working version.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The cable map is a graphical representation of the physical connections between the devices in the data center fabric. It shows the status of the cables, interfaces, and BGP sessions for each device. You can use the cable map to identify and troubleshoot any cable, interface, or BGP anomalies that may occur in the fabric. You can also filter the cable map by device name, device type, device role, device state, cable state, interface state, or BGP state12. References:
* Cable Map Overview
* Cable Map User Guide

NEW QUESTION # 35
Exhibit.

Referring to the exhibit, which role does Device A serve in an IP fabric?

• A. super spine
• B. server
• C. leaf
• D. spine

Answer: D

Explanation:
Device A serves as a spine in an IP fabric. An IP fabric is a network architecture that uses a spine-leaf topology to provide high performance, scalability, and reliability for data center networks. A spine-leaf topology consists of two layers of devices: spine devices and leaf devices. Spine devices are the core devices that interconnect all the leaf devices using equal-cost multipath (ECMP) routing. Leaf devices are the edge devices that connect to the servers, storage, or other network devices. In the exhibit, Device A is connected to four leaf devices using multiple links, which indicates that it is a spine device. The other options are incorrect because:
* A. leaf is wrong because a leaf device is an edge device that connects to the servers, storage, or other network devices. In the exhibit, Device A is not connected to any servers, storage, or other network devices, but only to four leaf devices, which indicates that it is not a leaf device.
* C. super spine is wrong because a super spine device is a higher-level device that interconnects multiple spine devices in a large-scale IP fabric. A super spine device is typically used when the number of leaf devices exceeds the port density of a single spine device. In the exhibit, Device A is not connected to any other spine devices, but only to four leaf devices, which indicates that it is not a super spine device.
* D. server is wrong because a server device is a compute or storage device that connects to a leaf device in an IP fabric. A server device is typically the end host that provides or consumes data in the network.
In the exhibit, Device A is not connected to any leaf devices, but only to four leaf devices, which indicates that it is not a server device. References:
* IP Fabric Underlay Network Design and Implementation
* IP Fabric Overview
* IP Fabric Architecture

NEW QUESTION # 36
Exhibit.

Which two statements ate correct about the information shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

• A. Four physical interfaces exist in a LAG facing the leaf pair.
• B. The system is fully managed by Juniper Apstra.
• C. The physical ports are not part of the LAG.
• D. The device shown is a generic system.

Answer: A,D

Explanation:
According to the Juniper documentation1, a generic system is a device that is not managed by Juniper Apstra and does not have a specific role or type assigned to it. A generic system can be used to represent a server, a firewall, a load balancer, or any other device that is not part of the fabric. In the exhibit, the device shown is a generic system, as indicated by its role, system type, and management level. Therefore, the correct answer is B: The device shown is a generic system.
According to the Juniper documentation2, a LAG is a link aggregation group that bundles multiple physical interfaces into a single logical interface. A LAG can provide increased bandwidth, redundancy, and load balancing for the network traffic. In the exhibit, the device shown has four physical interfaces that are part of a LAG, as indicated by their description and li_type. The LAG is facing the leaf pair, which are the two switches that connect to the device. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Four physical interfaces exist in a LAG facing the leaf pair. References: Generic Systems (Datacenter Design), Form LAG | Apstra 4.1 | Juniper Networks

NEW QUESTION # 37
Exhibit.

Which two statements about ESI values are correct for the server connections to the fabric shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

• A. A valid ESI value for Server B is 0x00.20.20.20.20.20.20.20.20.20.
• B. A valid ESI value for Server A is 0x00.00.00.00.00.00.00.00.00.00.
• C. A valid ESI value for Server A is 0x00.10.10.10.10.10.10.10.10.10.
• D. A valid ESI value for Server B is 0x00.00.00.00.00.00.00.00.00.00.

Answer: C,D

Explanation:
To answer this question, we need to understand the concept of ESI values in EVPN LAGs. An ESI is a 10-byte value that identifies an Ethernet segment, which is a set of links that connect a multihomed device (such as a server) to one or more PE devices (such as leaf switches) in an EVPN network. The same ESI value must be configured on all the PE devices that connect to the same Ethernet segment. This allows the PE devices to form an EVPN LAG, which supports active-active or active-standby multihoming for the device. The ESI value can be manually configured (type 0) or automatically derived from LACP (type 1) or other methods. In the exhibit, Server A is connected to two leaf switches (QFX 5210) using a LAG with LACP enabled. Server B is connected to three leaf switches (QFX 5120) using a LAG with LACP enabled. Based on this information, the following statements are correct about ESI values for the server connections to the fabric:
* C. A valid ESI value for Server A is 0x00.10.10.10.10.10.10.10.10.10. This is true because this ESI value can be automatically derived from the LACP configuration on the QFX 5210 devices. The LACP system ID is usually based on the MAC address of the device, and the LACP administrative key is a
2-byte value that identifies the LAG. For example, if the MAC address of the QFX 5210 device is
00:10:10:10:10:10 and the LAG ID is 10, then the LACP system ID is 00:10:10:10:10:10 and the LACP administrative key is 00:0A. The ESI value is then derived by concatenating the LACP system ID and the LACP administrative key, resulting in 00:10:10:10:10:10:00:0A. This ESI value can be represented in hexadecimal notation as 0x00.10.10.10.10.10.00.0A, or padded with zeros as
0x00.10.10.10.10.10.00.0A.00.00. This ESI value must be configured on both QFX 5210 devices that connect to Server A.
* D. A valid ESI value for Server B is 0x00.00.00.00.00.00.00.00.00.00. This is true because this ESI value is a reserved value that indicates a single-homed device. Server B is connected to three leaf switches (QFX 5120) using a LAG, but it is not multihomed to any of them. This means that Server B does not need an ESI value to form an EVPN LAG with any of the leaf switches. Instead, Server B can use the reserved ESI value of 0x00.00.00.00.00.00.00.00.00.00, which indicates that it is a single-homed device and does not participate in any EVPN LAG. This ESI value must be configured on all three QFX
5120 devices that connect to Server B. Thefollowing statements are incorrect about ESI values for the server connections to the fabric:
* A. A valid ESI value for Server A is 0x00.00.00.00.00.00.00.00.00.00. This is false because this ESI value is a reserved value that indicates a single-homed device. Server A is connected to two leaf switches (QFX 5210) using a LAG with LACP enabled, which means that it is multihomed to both of them. This means that Server A needs an ESI value to form an EVPN LAG with the leaf switches. The ESI value must be unique and non-zero for each Ethernet segment, so the reserved ESI value of
0x00.00.00.00.00.00.00.00.00.00 is not valid for Server A.
* B. A valid ESI value for Server B is 0x00.20.20.20.20.20.20.20.20.20. This is false because this ESI value is not derived from the LACP configuration on the QFX 5120 devices. Server B is connected to three leaf switches (QFX 5120) using a LAG with LACP enabled, but it is not multihomed to any of them. This means that Server B does not need an ESI value to form an EVPN LAG with any of the leaf switches. Instead, Server B can use the reserved ESI value of 0x00.00.00.00.00.00.00.00.00.00, which indicates that it is a single-homed device and does not participate in any EVPN LAG. The ESI value of
0x00.20.20.20.20.20.20.20.20.20 is not valid for Server B, and it may cause conflicts with other Ethernet segments that use the same ESI value. References:
* Ethernet Segment Identifiers, ESI Types, and LACP in EVPN LAGs
* Understanding Automatically Generated ESIs in EVPN Networks
* Ethernet Segment in EVPN: All You Need to Know

NEW QUESTION # 38
Exhibit.

The 10.100.0.0/16 route is being advertised into your BGP IP fabric. ECMP load balancing has been properly enabled on all devices In this scenario, how many routes will the leaf device in AS 65000 receive for the 10.100.0.0/16 prefix?

• A. 0
• B. 1
• C. 2
• D. 3

Answer: D

Explanation:
The leaf device in AS 65000 will receive three routes for the 10.100.0.0/16 prefix, one from each spine device in AS 65001, AS 65002, and AS 65003. Since ECMP load balancing is enabled, the leaf device will install all three routes in its routing table and distribute the traffic among them. The other options are incorrect because:
* B. 1 is wrong because the leaf device will not receive only one route for the prefix. It will receive multiple routes from different spine devices and use ECMP to load balance among them.
* C. 2 is wrong because the leaf device will not receive only two routes for the prefix. It will receive three routes from three spine devices, as explained above.
* D. 4 is wrong because the leaf device will not receive four routes for the prefix. It will receive three routes from three spine devices, as explained above. The fourth spine device in AS 65004 is not directly connected to the leaf device and will not advertise the prefix to it. References:
* IP Fabric Underlay Network Design and Implementation
* BGP Multipath load sharing iBGP and eBGP
* ECMP Load Balancing

NEW QUESTION # 39
Exhibit.

You are working to build an ESI-LAG for a multihomed server. The ESI-LAG is not coming up as multihomed.
Referring to the exhibit, what are two solutions to this problem? (Choose two.)

• A. The gateway IP addresses on both devices must be different.
• B. The loopback IP addresses on both devices must be the same.
• C. The ESI ID on both devices must be the same.
• D. The LACP system ID on both devices must be the same.

Answer: C,D

Explanation:
According to the Juniper documentation1, an ESI-LAG is a link aggregation group (LAG) that spans two or more devices and is identified by an Ethernet segment identifier (ESI). An ESI-LAG provides redundancy and load balancing for a multihomed server in an EVPN-VXLAN network. To configure an ESI-LAG, you need to ensure that the following requirements are met:
* The LACP system ID on both devices must be the same. This ensures that the LACP protocol can negotiate the LAG parameters and form a single logical interface for the server.
* The ESI ID on both devices must be the same. This ensures that the EVPN control plane can advertise the ESI-LAG as a single Ethernet segment and synchronize the MAC and IP addresses of the server across the devices.
* The VLAN ID and VNI on both devices must be the same. This ensures that the server can communicate with other hosts in the same virtual network and that the VXLAN encapsulation and decapsulation can work properly.
In the exhibit, the LACP system ID and the ESI ID on both devices are different, which prevents the ESI-LAG from coming up as multihomed. Therefore, the correct answer is B and D. The LACP system ID on both devices must be the same and the ESI ID on both devices must be the same. References: ESI-LAG Made Easier with EZ-LAG, Example: Configuring an ESI on a Logical Interface With EVPN-MPLS Multihoming, Introduction to EVPN LAG Multihoming

NEW QUESTION # 40
What are two system-defined user roles that are available in Juniper Apstra? (Choose two.)

• A. viewer
• B. authorized
• C. user
• D. root

Answer: A,C

Explanation:
Juniper Apstra provides four system-defined user roles that are available in the Apstra GUI environment. They are: administrator, device_ztp, viewer, and user1. Based on the web search results, we can infer the following statements:
* viewer: This role includes permissions to only view various elements in the Apstra system, such as blueprints, devices, design, resources, external systems, platform, and others. Users with this role cannot create, edit, or delete any element12.
* user: This role includes permissions to view and edit various elements in the Apstra system, such as blueprints, devices, design, resources, external systems, platform, and others. Users with this role cannot create or delete any element12.
* authorized: This is not a system-defined user role in Juniper Apstra. It is a term used to describe users who have been authenticated by an external system, such as LDAP, Active Directory, TACACS+, or RADIUS3.
* root: This is not a system-defined user role in Juniper Apstra. It is a term used to describe the superuser account on a Linux system, which has full access to all commands and files. Creating a user in the Apstra GUI does not provide that user access to the Apstra platform via SSH. To access the Apstra platform via SSH, you must create a local Linux system user4. References:
* User / Role Management Introduction
* User/Role Management (Platform)
* AAA Providers
* User Profile Management

NEW QUESTION # 41
Which two statements about VXLAN VNIs are correct? (Choose two.)

• A. VNIs are alphanumeric values.
• B. VNIs identify a collision domain.
• C. VNIs identify a broadcast domain
• D. VNIs can have over 16 million unique values.

Answer: C,D

Explanation:
VXLAN VNIs are virtual network identifiers that are used to identify and isolate Layer 2 segments in the overlay network. VXLAN VNIs have the following characteristics:
* VNIs can have over 16 million unique values. This is because VXLAN VNIs are 24-bit fields that can range from 4096 to 16777214, according to the VXLAN standard1. This allows VXLAN to support a large number of Layer 2 segments and tenants in the network.
* VNIs identify a broadcast domain. This is because VXLAN VNIs are used to group the end hosts that belong to the same Layer 2 segment and can communicate with each other using VXLAN tunnels. The VXLAN tunnels are established using the VTEP information that is distributed by EVPN. The VTEPs are VXLAN tunnel endpoints that perform the VXLAN encapsulation and decapsulation. The VXLAN tunnels preserve the Layer 2 semantics and support the broadcast, unknown unicast, and multicast traffic within the same VNI2.
The following two statements are incorrect in this scenario:
* VNIs identify a collision domain. This is not true, because VXLAN VNIs do not identify a collision domain, which is a network segment where data packets can collide with each other. VXLAN VNIs identify a broadcast domain, which is a network segment where broadcast traffic can reach all the devices. Collision domains are not relevant in VXLAN networks, because VXLAN uses MAC-in-UDP encapsulation and IP routing to transport the Layer 2 frames over the Layer 3 network1.
* VNIs are alphanumeric values. This is not true, because VXLAN VNIs are numeric values, not alphanumeric values. VXLAN VNIs are 24-bit fields that can range from 4096 to 16777214, according to the VXLAN standard1. Alphanumeric values are values that contain both letters and numbers, such as ABC123 or 1A2B3C.
References:
* Virtual Extensible LAN (VXLAN) Overview
* EVPN LAGs in EVPN-VXLAN Reference Architectures

NEW QUESTION # 42
When working with logical devices, you specify where each port group is connected.
In thisscenario, which two Juniper Apstra Ul options are available to the operator? {Choose two.)

• A. generic
• B. firewall
• C. router
• D. unused

Answer: A,D

Explanation:
When working with logical devices, you specify where each port group is connected by selecting the port group layout and the port speed and role (s) for each port group. The Juniper Apstra UI offers two options to the operator for the port group role: unused and generic1.
* Unused: This option means that the port group is not configured or used by Apstra. This can be useful for ports that are faulty, reserved, or not part of the data center fabric1.
* Generic: This option means that the port group is configured with a generic role that is not specific to any device type or function. This can be useful for ports that are used for testing, troubleshooting, or custom purposes1. References:
* Logical Devices

NEW QUESTION # 43
A member of your organization made changes to a predefined interface map using Juniper Apstra.
Which two statements are correct in this scenario? (Choose two.)

• A. Changes to interface maps in the global catalog will raise anomalies that may need to be addressed at the next commit.
• B. Changes to interface maps in the global catalog do not affect interface maps that have already been imported into blueprint catalogs
• C. Changes made to predefined interface maps will not have an impact on the Apstra software.
• D. Any changes made to predefined interface maps are discarded when Apstra is upgraded.

Answer: B,D

Explanation:
According to the Juniper documentation1, an interface map is a configuration template that maps interfaces between logical devices and physical hardware devices (represented with device profiles) while adhering to vendor specifications. An interface map can be either predefined or custom. A predefined interface map is one that ships with Apstra software and supports most qualified Juniper devices. A custom interface map is one that is created by the user to meet specific requirements. An interface map can be stored in either the global catalog or the blueprint catalog. The global catalog contains all the interface maps that are available for use in any blueprint. The blueprint catalog contains the interface maps that are imported from the global catalog and used in a specific blueprint.
When a member of your organization makes changes to a predefined interface map, the following statements are correct:
* Changes to interface maps in the global catalog do not affect interface maps that have already been imported into blueprint catalogs. This means that the existing blueprints that use the original version of the interface map will not be impacted by the changes. However, if you want to use the updated version of the interface map in a new or existing blueprint, you need to import it again from the global catalog.
* Any changes made to predefined interface maps are discarded when Apstra is upgraded. This means that the changes will not be preserved across different versions of Apstra software. If you want to retain a customized interface map through Apstra upgrades, you need to clone the predefined interface map, give it a unique name, and customize it instead of changing the predefined one directly.
Therefore, the correct answer is A and B. Changes to interface maps in the global catalog do not affect interface maps that have already been imported into blueprint catalogs and any changes made to predefined interface maps are discarded when Apstra is upgraded. References: Edit Interface Map | Apstra 4.2 | Juniper Networks

NEW QUESTION # 44
You have designed your fabric in Juniper Apstra prior to deploying the network devices.
Which Apstra element in the Staged tab would be used to assist the team that is installing and cabling the devices?

• A. Links table
• B. Connectivity Templates
• C. Virtual Networks table
• D. Managed Devices list

Answer: A

Explanation:
The Links table in the Staged tab shows the physical connections between the devices in the fabric. It provides information such as the source and destination device names, hostnames, serial numbers, roles, interfaces, and link status. The Links table can be used to assist the team that is installing and cabling the devices by verifying that the devices are connected correctly and that the links are operational. The Links table can also be used to troubleshoot any connectivity issues that may arise during the installation process. For more information, see Links (Staged). References:
* Links (Staged)
* Topology (Staged)
* Staged

NEW QUESTION # 45
Which two statements are correct regarding a pristine configuration in Juniper Apstra? (Choose two.)

• A. It is the device's currently active configuration.
• B. It Is the configuration file on a device before acknowledgment in Apstra.
• C. It is the device's previously active configuration.
• D. It is the configuration file placed on the device when decommissioning the device.

Answer: B,D

Explanation:
A pristine configuration in Juniper Apstra is the configuration file that is used to onboard a device into the Apstra software application. A pristine configuration contains the minimum settings that are required for the device to communicate with the Apstra server, such as the hostname, management IP address, username, password, and SSH key1. A pristine configuration has the following characteristics:
* It is the configuration file placed on the device when decommissioning the device. This is because when a device is decommissioned from the Apstra software application, it is reverted back to its pristine configuration, which removes all the network configuration and services that were applied by the Apstra software application. This allows the device to be reused or repurposed for another network2.
* It is the configuration file on a device before acknowledgment in Apstra. This is because when a device is onboarded into the Apstra software application, it is initially in the discovery state, which means that
* the device is discovered by the Apstra server, but not yet acknowledged by the user. In the discovery state, thedevice has the pristine configuration, which can be viewed and edited by the user. Once the user acknowledges the device, the device moves to the deployed state, which means that the device is ready to receive the network configuration and services from the Apstra software application3.
The following two statements are incorrect in this scenario:
* It is the device's currently active configuration. This is not true, because the pristine configuration is not the device's currently active configuration, unless the device is in the discovery state or the decommissioned state. In the deployed state, the device's currently active configuration is the network configuration and services that are applied by the Apstra software application, which are based on the blueprint and the intent3.
* It is the device's previously active configuration. This is not true, because the pristine configuration is not the device's previously active configuration, unless the device is in the decommissioned state. In the discovery state, the pristine configuration is the device's initial configuration, which may or may not be the same as the device's previous configuration before being onboarded into the Apstra software application. In the deployed state, the device's previously active configuration is the network configuration and services that were applied by the Apstra software application before the last commit3.
References:
* Pristine Config
* Decommission Device
* Device States

NEW QUESTION # 46
You are adding a new switch to Juniper Apstra software. The Managed Devices page shows the "0 OS-Quarantined" status. What is the proper next step to make the device ready for use in a blueprint?

• A. Take the device out of drain state.
• B. Acknowledge the device.
• C. Take the device out of maintenance mode.
• D. Install the agent for the device.

Answer: B

Explanation:
When a new switch is added to Juniper Apstra software, it initially shows the "0 OS-Quarantined" status, which means that the device is not yet managed by Apstra and has not been assigned to any blueprint. The proper next step to make the device ready for use in a blueprint is to acknowledge the device, which is a manual action that confirms the device identity and ownership. Acknowledging the device changes its status to
"OOS-Ready", which means that the device is ready to be assigned to a blueprint and deployed12. References
:
* Managing Devices
* AOS Device Configuration Lifecycle

NEW QUESTION # 47
In the Juniper Apstra design phase, which object dictates port count, port speed, and how the ports would be used?

• A. rack type
• B. interface map
• C. network devices
• D. logical devices

Answer: B

Explanation:
Interface maps are objects that map interfaces between logical devices and physical hardware devices in the Juniper Apstra design phase. They dictate port count, port speed, and how the ports would be used for achieving the intended network configuration rendering. Interface maps also allow you to select device ports, transformations, and interfaces, provision breakout ports, and disable unused ports. For more information, see Interface Maps (Datacenter Design). References:
* Interface Maps (Datacenter Design)
* Design
* Interface Maps Introduction

NEW QUESTION # 48
Using the Juniper Apstra multitenancy capabilities, which approach will allow a tenant to interconnect two different routing zones?

• A. Interconnection is the default behavior.
• B. Interconnection cannot be enabled.
• C. Use interconnection through an external gateway.
• D. Use interconnection through the fabric spine nodes.

Answer: C

Explanation:
According to the Juniper documentation1, a routing zone is an L3 domain, the unit of tenancy in multi-tenant networks. You create routing zones for tenants to isolate their IP traffic from one another, thus enabling tenants to re-use IP subnets. In addition to being in its own VRF, each routing zone can be assigned its own DHCP relay server and external system connections. You can create one or more virtual networks within a routing zone, which means a tenant can stretch its L2 applications across multiple racks within its routing zone. For virtual networks with Layer 3 SVI, the SVI is associated with a Virtual Routing and Forwarding (VRF) instance for each routing zone isolating the virtual network SVI from other virtual network SVIs in other routing zones. If you're using multiple routing zones, external system connections must be from leaf switches in the fabric. Routing between routing zones must be accomplished with external systems. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Use interconnection through an external gateway. References: Routing Zones

NEW QUESTION # 49
In the case of IP Clos data center five-stage fabric design, what are two rotes of the super spines? (Choose two.)

• A. Super spines are always connected to an external data center gateway.
• B. Super spines are used to connect leaf nodes within a data center pod.
• C. Super spines connect to all spine devices within the five-stage architecture.
• D. Super spines are used to interconnect two different data center pods.

Answer: C,D

Explanation:
In the case of IP Clos data center five-stage fabric design, the super spines are the devices that provide the highest level of aggregation in the network. They have two main roles:
* Super spines are used to interconnect two different data center pods. A pod is a cluster of leaf and spine devices that form a 3-stage Clos topology. A 5-stage Clos topology consists of multiple pods that are connected by the super spines. This allows for scaling the network to support more devices and bandwidth.
* Super spines connect to all spine devices within the five-stage architecture. The spine devices are the devices that provide the second level of aggregation in the network. They connect to the leaf devices, which are the devices that provide access to the end hosts. The super spines connect to all the spine devices in the network, regardless of which pod they belong to. This provides any-to-any connectivity between the pods and enables optimal routing and load balancing.
The following two statements are incorrect in this scenario:
* Super spines are used to connect leaf nodes within a data center pod. This is not true, because the leaf nodes are connected to the spine nodes within the samepod. The super spines do not connect to the leaf nodes directly, but only through the spine nodes.
* Super spines are always connected to an external data center gateway. This is not true, because the super spines are not necessarily involved in the external connectivity of the data center. The external data center gateway is a device that provides the connection to the outside network, such as the Internet or another data center. The external data center gateway can be connected to the super spines, the spine nodes, or the leaf nodes, depending on the design and the requirements of the network.
References:
* 5-stage Clos Architecture - Apstra 3.3.0 documentation
* 5-Stage Clos Architecture | Juniper Networks
* Extreme Fabric Automation Administration Guide

NEW QUESTION # 50
Which statement is true when onboarding a Juniper Networks device using a Juniper Apstra ZTP server?

• A. The Hostname will be the serial-number of the device.
• B. The Device Key lo be used can be set In the dhcpd.conf file on the ZTP server.
• C. The State can be set In the ztp.Json file on the ZTP server.
• D. The Management IP address cannot be predetermined.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The ztp.Json file on the Apstra ZTP server contains the configuration parameters for each device that is onboarded using ZTP. One of the parameters is the State, which can be one of the following values: init, ready, in_progress, done, error, or disabled. The State indicates the current status of the device in the ZTP process. For example, if the State is ready, it means that the device is ready to be onboarded by the Apstra ZTP server. If the State is done, it means that the device has completed the ZTP process and is managed by the Apstra server. The State can be manually set or changed in the ztp.Json file to control the behavior of the device during ZTP. For more information, see Apstra ZTP Configuration File. References:
* Apstra ZTP Configuration File
* Apstra ZTP Introduction
* Configure Apstra ZTP

NEW QUESTION # 51
Which two statements are correct about probes? (Choose two.)

• A. Default probes are enabled, based on the intent for a blueprint.
• B. All default probes are enabled for all blueprints.
• C. Default probes can be cloned, modified, and saved.
• D. Only the variable parameters tor default probes can be edited and saved.

Answer: A,C

Explanation:
Probes are the basic unit of abstraction in Intent-Based Analytics (IBA). They are used to collect, process, and analyze data from the network and raise anomalies based on specified conditions. Probes are composed of processors and stages that form a directed acyclic graph (DAG) of data flow. The following statements are correct about probes:
* A. Default probes can be cloned, modified, and saved. This is true because Apstra provides a set of default probes that cover common use cases and scenarios. These probes can be cloned and modified to suit the specific needs of the user. The modified probes can be saved as new probes with different names and descriptions. This allows the user to customize and extend the functionality of the default probes.
* D. Default probes are enabled, based on the intent for a blueprint. This is true because Apstra enables or disables the default probes automatically based on the intent of the blueprint. The intent of the blueprint is the high-level description of the desired state and behavior of the network. Apstra uses the intent to determine which default probes are relevant and applicable for the blueprint and enables them accordingly. For example, if the intent of the blueprint is to deployan EVPN-VXLAN fabric, Apstra will enable the default probes related to EVPN-VXLAN, such as EVPN-VXLAN Anomaly Detection, EVPN-VXLAN Fabric Health, and EVPN-VXLAN Fabric Validation. The following statements are incorrect about probes:
* B. Only the variable parameters for default probes can be edited and saved. This is false because the user can edit and save any parameters for the default probes, not just the variable ones. The variable parameters are the ones that depend on the network topology, devices, or configuration, such as device
* names, interface names, IP addresses, VLAN IDs, etc. The user can also edit and save the fixed parameters, such as the duration, threshold, condition, etc. However, the user cannot edit and save the default probes directly. The user must clone the default probes first and then edit and save the cloned probes as new probes.
* C. All default probes are enabled for all blueprints. This is false because Apstra does not enable all default probes for all blueprints. Apstra enables the default probes based on the intent of the blueprint, as explained above. This means that only the default probes that are relevant and applicable for the blueprint are enabled. For example, if the intent of the blueprint is to deploy a BGP IP fabric, Apstra will not enable the default probes related to EVPN-VXLAN, since they are not relevant for the blueprint. The user can also manually enable or disable the default probes as needed. References:
* Probes
* Create Probe
* Intent-Based Analytics Overview

NEW QUESTION # 52
What is the purpose of using a routing zone inside Juniper Apstra software?

• A. A routing zone defined at the Apstra manager level requires firewalls to be deployed.
• B. A routing zone is used to enable the communication between two VNIs within a VRF.
• C. A routing zone is defined to secure the routing protocols.
• D. A routing zone is used to enable L4-L7 inspection inside the fabric.

Answer: B

Explanation:
According to the Juniper documentation1, a routing zone is an L3 domain, the unit of tenancy in multi-tenant networks. You create routing zones for tenants to isolate their IP traffic from one another, thus enabling tenants to re-use IP subnets. In addition to being in its own VRF, each routing zone can be assigned its own DHCP relay server and external system connections. You can create one or more virtual networks within a routing zone, which means a tenant can stretch its L2 applications across multiple racks within its routing zone. For virtual networks with Layer 3 SVI, the SVI is associated with a Virtual Routing and Forwarding (VRF) instance for each routing zone isolating the virtual network SVI from other virtual network SVIs in other routing zones. Therefore, the correct answer is D. A routing zone is used to enable the communication between two VNIs within a VRF. A routing zone is not used for L4-L7 inspection, securing routing protocols, or requiring firewalls. Those are not the purposes of a routing zone in Juniper Apstra software. References: Routing Zones

NEW QUESTION # 53
You have recently committed a change after creating a new blueprint in Juniper Apstra. In the main dashboard, you see a number of anomalies related to BGR What is a likely cause of these anomalies?

• A. Spine-leaf links are incorrectly set.
• B. The fabric has not converged yet.
• C. You have misconfigured ASNs.
• D. A generic system has not been configured.

Answer: B

Explanation:
In Juniper Apstra, a blueprint is a logical representation of the network design and configuration. When you create a new blueprint, you need to commit the changes to apply them to the network devices. However, committing the changes does not mean that the network is immediately updated and operational. It may take some time for the network to converge and reflect the new state of the blueprint. During this time, you may see some anomalies related to BGP in the main dashboard, which indicate that the BGP sessions are not established or stable between the devices. These anomalies are usually temporary and will disappear once the network converges and the BGP sessions are up and running. Therefore, the statement B is the most likely cause of these anomalies in this scenario.
The following three statements are less likely causes of these anomalies in this scenario:
* You have misconfigured ASNs. This is possible, but not very likely, because Juniper Apstra provides ASN pools that can be automatically assigned to the devices based on their roles. You can also manually specify the ASNs for the devices, but you need to ensure that they are unique and consistent with the network design. If you have misconfigured ASNs, you may see some anomalies related to BGP, but they will not disappear after the network converges. You will need to fix the ASNs and commit the changes again to resolve the anomalies.
* Spine-leaf links are incorrectly set. This is possible, but not very likely, because Juniper Apstra provides connectivity templates that can be used to define the spine-leaf links based on the interface maps. You can also manually specify the spine-leaf links, but you need to ensure that they are correct and match the physical cabling. If you have incorrectly set the spine-leaf links, you may see some anomalies related to BGP, but they will not disappear after the network converges. You will need to fix the spine-leaf links and commit the changes again to resolve the anomalies.
* A generic system has not been configured. This is not relevant, because a generic system is a device that is not managed by Juniper Apstra, but is connected to the network. A generic system does not affect the BGP sessions between the devices that are managed by Juniper Apstra. If you have a generic system in your network, you need to configure it manually and ensure that it is compatible with the network design. A generic system does not cause any anomalies related to BGP in the main dashboard.
References:
* Blueprint Summaries and Dashboard
* BGP Session Flapping Probe
* Probe: BGP Session Monitoring

NEW QUESTION # 54
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