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CompTIA 220-1102 exam covers a wide range of topics related to computer hardware, software, and networking. Some of the topics that are covered in 220-1102 exam include installing and configuring operating systems, troubleshooting software and hardware issues, setting up and maintaining networks, and securing systems and networks. In order to pass 220-1102 exam, candidates must demonstrate their understanding of these topics and their ability to apply their knowledge to real-world scenarios.
NEW QUESTION # 26
A network technician is deploying a new machine in a small branch office that does not have a DHCP server.
The new machine automatically receives the IP address of 169.254.0.2 and is unable to communicate with the rest of the network. Which of the following would restore communication?
* Static entry
- A. NTP specification
- B. APIPA address
- C. ARP table
Answer: C
Explanation:
A static entry is the best option to restore communication for the new machine in a small branch office that does not have a DHCP server. A static entry means manually configuring the IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS server for the network adapter of the machine. A static entry ensures that the machine has a valid and unique IP address that matches the network configuration and can communicate with the rest of the network.
The new machine automatically receives the IP address of 169.254.0.2 because it uses APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing), which is a feature that enables computers to self-assign an IP address when a DHCP server is not available. However, APIPA only works for local communication within the same subnet, and does not provide a default gateway or a DNS server. Therefore, the new machine is unable to communicate with the rest of the network, which may be on a different subnet or require a gateway or a DNS server to access.
The other options are not related to restoring communication for the new machine. ARP table is a cache that stores the mapping between IP addresses and MAC addresses for the devices on the network. NTP specification is a protocol that synchronizes the clocks of the devices on the network.
References:
* CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 2 Objectives1
* CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1102) Certification Study Guide2
* What is APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing)? - Study-CCNA3
* How to Configure a Static IP Address in Windows and OS X4
NEW QUESTION # 27
A company recently outsourced its night-shift cleaning service. A technician is concerned about having unsupervised contractors in the building. Which of the following security measures can be used to prevent the computers from being accessed? (Select two).
- A. Disabling local administrator accounts
- B. Restricting user permissions
- C. Implementing data-at-rest encryption
- D. Restricting log-in times
- E. Enabling a screen lock
- F. Disabling AutoRun
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
The correct answers are D. Restricting log-in times and E. Enabling a screen lock. These are the security measures that can be used to prevent the computers from being accessed by unsupervised contractors in the building.
Restricting log-in times means setting a policy that allows users to log in only during certain hours, such as the regular working hours of the company. This will prevent unauthorized access by contractors who work at night1.
Enabling a screen lock means setting a policy that requires users to enter a password or a PIN to unlock their screens after a period of inactivity. This will prevent unauthorized access by contractors who might try to use the computers when the users are away2.
1: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2 Objectives, page 19, section 2.3. 2: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2 Objectives, page 20, section 2.4.
NEW QUESTION # 28
Which of the following is the default GUI and file manager in macOS?
- A. Disk Utility
- B. FileVault
- C. Dock
- D. Finder
Answer: D
Explanation:
Finder is the default GUI and file manager in macOS. Finder is an application that allows users to access and manage files and folders on their Mac computers. Finder also provides features such as Quick Look, Spotlight, AirDrop and iCloud Drive. Finder uses a graphical user interface that consists of icons, menus, toolbars and windows to display and interact with files and folders. Disk Utility is a utility that allows users to view and manage disk drives and partitions on their Mac computers. Disk Utility is not a GUI or a file manager but a disk management tool. Dock is a feature that allows users to access and launch applications on their Mac computers. Dock is not a GUI or a file manager but an application launcher. FileVault is a feature that allows users to encrypt and protect their data on their Mac computers. FileVault is not a GUI or a file manager but an encryption tool. Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1002) Certification Exam Objectives Version 4.0, Domain 1.1
NEW QUESTION # 29
A mobile phone user has downloaded a new payment application that allows payments to be made with a mobile device. The user attempts to use the device at a payment terminal but is unable to do so successfully.
The user contacts a help desk technician to report the issue. Which of the following should the technician confirm NEXT as part of the troubleshooting process?
- A. If location services are disabled
- B. If airplane mode is enabled
- C. If NFC is enabled
- D. If Bluetooth is disabled
- E. If WiFi is enabled
Answer: C
Explanation:
NFC stands for Near Field Communication, and it is a wireless technology that allows your phone to act as a contactless payment device, among other things2. Payment applications that allow payments to be made with a mobile device usually rely on NFC to communicate with the payment terminal1. Therefore, if NFC is disabled on the phone, the payment will not work. To enable NFC on an Android phone, you need to follow these steps3:
* On your Android device, open the Settings app.
* Select Connected devices.
* Tap on Connection preferences.
* You should see the NFC option. Toggle it on.
The other options are not directly related to using a payment application with a mobile device. Airplane mode is a setting that disables all wireless communication on the phone, including NFC4, but it also affects calls, texts, and internet access. Bluetooth is a wireless technology that allows you to connect your phone with other devices such as headphones or speakers, but it is not used for contactless payments. Wi-Fi is a wireless technology that allows you to access the internet or a local network, but it is also not used for contactless payments. Location services are a feature that allows your phone to determine your geographic location using GPS or other methods, but they are not required for contactless payments.
NEW QUESTION # 30
A technician has been unable to remediate a persistent malware infection on a user's workstation. After the technician reinstalled the OS. the malware infection returned later that day. Which of the following is the most likely source?
- A. Trojan
- B. Boot sector virus
- C. Rootkit
- D. Spyware
Answer: B
Explanation:
A boot sector virus infects the master boot record (MBR) of a hard drive, the sector that contains information required to start the operating system after the computer is turned on. This type of virus is particularly insidious because it loads into memory immediately upon booting and before most antivirus programs start.
This makes it possible for the virus to evade detection and removal, and can easily reinfect a system even after the operating system is reinstalled if the boot sector is not cleaned.
* Boot sector virus:Given that the malware infection returned after the OS reinstallation, it's likely that the virus was not removed from the boot sector during the reinstallation process. Reinstalling the OS
* without cleaning the boot sector won't remove the infection, allowing the virus to continue to affect the system.
Other options:
* Trojan:A Trojan is a type of malware that disguises itself as legitimate software. While Trojans can be persistent, the reinstallation of the OS should remove any Trojans unless they are reintroduced after installation.
* Spyware:Spyware is designed to gather information about a person or organization without their knowledge. Like Trojans, spyware should be removed with an OS reinstallation unless it is reintroduced in some way.
* Rootkit:Rootkits are designed to enable continued privileged access to a computer while actively hiding their presence. While a rootkit could potentially survive an OS reinstall if it infects the firmware or certain areas outside the OS, the scenario described points more specifically to a boot sector virus, especially considering the immediate return of the infection after OS reinstallation.
NEW QUESTION # 31
As a corporate technician, you are asked to evaluate several suspect email messages on a client's computer.
Corporate policy requires he following:
* All phishing attempts must be reported.
* Future spam emails to users must be prevented.
INSTRUCTIONS
Review each email and perform the following within the email:
* Classify the emails
* Identify suspicious items, if applicable, in each email
* Select the appropriate resolution
- A. Report email to Information Security. The user should not click on the link, reply to the email, or provide any personal or account information. The user should forward the email to the Information Security team or use a professional email form to report the phishing attempt. The user should also delete the email from their inbox and trash folder.
The suspicious items to select are:
b) From address
d) Hyperlinks
These items indicate that the email is not from a legitimate source and that the link is potentially malicious. The other items are not suspicious in this case, as the to address is the user's own email and there are no attachments.
Classification: b) Spam
This email is a spam email, as it is an unsolicited and unwanted message that tries to persuade the user to participate in a survey and claim a reward. Some suspicious items in this email are:
The email offers a free wireless headphone as an incentive, which is too good to be true.
The email does not provide any details about the survey company, such as its name, address, or contact information.
The email contains an external survey link, which may lead to a malicious or fraudulent website.
The email does not have an unsubscribe option, which is required by law for commercial emails.
The appropriate resolution for this email is C. Unsubscribe. The user should look for an unsubscribe link or button at the bottom of the email and follow the instructions to opt out of receiving future emails from the sender. The user should also mark the email as spam or junk in their email client, which will help filter out similar emails in the future. The user should not click on the survey link, reply to the email, or provide any personal or financial information.
Classification: c) Legitimate
This email is a legitimate email, as it is from a trusted source and has a valid purpose. There are no suspicious items in this email, as the from address, the to address, the attachment, and the email body are all consistent and relevant. The appropriate resolution for this email is B. Perform no additional actions. The user can open the attachment and review the orientation material as instructed. The user does not need to report, unsubscribe, or delete this email.
Classification: a) Phishing
This email is a phishing attempt, as it tries to deceive the user into downloading and running a malicious attachment that could compromise their system or data. Some suspicious items in this email are:
The email has a generic greeting and does not address the user by name or username.
The email has an urgent tone and claims that a security patch needs to be installed immediately.
The email has an attachment named "patch1.exe", which is an executable file that could contain malware or ransomware.
The email does not match the official format or domain of CompTIA Information Security.
The appropriate resolution for this email is A. Report email to Information Security. The user should not open the attachment, reply to the email, or provide any personal or account information. The user should forward the email to the Information Security team or use a professional email form to report the phishing attempt. The user should also delete the email from their inbox and trash folder.
Classification: c) Legitimate
This email is a legitimate email, as it is from a trusted source and has a valid purpose. There are no suspicious items in this email, as the from address, the to address, and the email body are all consistent and relevant.
The appropriate resolution for this email is B.
Perform no additional actions. The user can reply to the email and thank the sender for the interview opportunity. The user does not need to report, unsubscribe, or delete this email.
Answer:
Explanation:
Classification: a) Phishing
This email is a phishing attempt, as it tries to trick the user into clicking on a malicious link that could compromise their account or personal information. Some suspicious items in this email are:
The email has a generic greeting and does not address the user by name.
The email has spelling errors, such as "unusal" and "Locaked".
The email uses a sense of urgency and fear to pressure the user into clicking on the link.
The email does not match the official format or domain of the IT Help Desk at CompTIA.
The email has two black bat icons, which are not related to CompTIA or IT support.
The appropriate resolution for this email is
NEW QUESTION # 32
A technician is setting up a desktop computer in a small office. The user will need to access files on a drive shared from another desktop on the network. Which of the following configurations should the technician employ to achieve this goal?
- A. Configure the network as private
- B. Create a shortcut to public documents
- C. Enable a proxy server
- D. Grant the network administrator role to the user
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The technician should configure the network as private to allow the user to access files on a drive shared from another desktop on the network1
NEW QUESTION # 33
A technician is troubleshooting an issue involving programs on a Windows 10 machine that are loading on startup but causing excessive boot times. Which of the following should the technician do to selectively prevent programs from loading?
- A. Open the Startup tab and methodically disable items currently listed as enabled and reboot, checking for issue resolution at each startup.
- B. Right-click the Windows button, then select Run entering shell startup and clicking OK, and then move items one by one to the Recycle Bin
- C. Remark out entries listed
HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE>SOFTWARE>Microsoft>Windows>CurrentVersion>Run - D. Manually disable all startup tasks currently listed as enabled and reboot checking for issue resolution at startup
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
This is the most effective way to selectively prevent programs from loading on a Windows 10 machine. The Startup tab can be accessed by opening Task Manager and then selecting the Startup tab. From there, the technician can methodically disable items that are currently listed as enabled, reboot the machine, and check for issue resolution at each startup. If the issue persists, the technician can then move on to disabling the next item on the list.
NEW QUESTION # 34
Which of the following should be used to secure a device from known exploits?
- A. Remote wipe
- B. Cross-site scripting
- C. Encryption
- D. Operating system updates
Answer: D
Explanation:
Operating system updates are used to secure a device from known exploits. Operating system updates are patches or fixes that are released by the vendor to address security vulnerabilities, bugs, or performance issues.
Operating system updates can also provide new features or enhancements to the device. It is important to keep the operating system updated to prevent attackers from exploiting known flaws or weaknesses.
NEW QUESTION # 35
A user has requested help setting up the fingerprint reader on a Windows 10 laptop. The laptop is equipped with a fingerprint reader and is joined to a domain Group Policy enables Windows Hello on all computers in the environment. Which of the following options describes how to set up Windows Hello Fingerprint for the user?
- A. Navigate to the Windows 10 Settings menu, select the Update & Security submenu select Windows Security, select Windows Hello Fingerprint and have the user place a fingerprint on the fingerprint reader repeatedly until Windows indicates setup is complete
- B. Navigate to the Control Panel utility, select the Administrative Tools submenu, select the user account in the list, select Windows Hello Fingerprint, and have the user place a fingerprint on the fingerprint reader repeatedly until Windows indicates setup is complete.
- C. Navigate to the Control Panel utility, select the Security and Maintenance submenu, select Change Security and Maintenance settings, select Windows Hello Fingerprint, and have the user place a fingerprint on the fingerprint reader repeatedly until Windows indicates setup is complete
- D. Navigate to the Windows 10 Settings menu, select the Accounts submenu, select Sign in options, select Windows Hello Fingerprint, and have the user place a fingerprint on the fingerprint reader repeatedly until Windows indicates setup is complete.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Navigate to the Windows 10 Settings menu, select the Accounts submenu, select Sign in options, select Windows Hello Fingerprint, and have the user place a fingerprint on the fingerprint reader repeatedly until Windows indicates setup is complete. Windows Hello Fingerprint can be set up by navigating to the Windows 10 Settings menu, selecting the Accounts submenu, selecting Sign in options, and then selecting Windows Hello Fingerprint. The user will then be asked to place a fingerprint on the fingerprint reader repeatedly until Windows indicates that setup is complete. Windows Hello Fingerprint allows the user to log into the laptop using just their fingerprint, providing an additional layer of security.
NEW QUESTION # 36
A user needs assistance changing the desktop wallpaper on a Windows 10 computer. Which of the following methods will enable the user to change the wallpaper using a Windows 10 Settings tool?
- A. Open Settings, select System, select Display, click Browse, and then locate and open the image the user wants to use as the wallpaper
- B. Open Settings, select Personalization, click Browse, and then locate and open the image the user wants to use as the wallpaper
- C. Open Settings, select Accounts, select, Your info, click Browse, and then locate and open the image the user wants to use as the wallpaper
- D. Open Settings, select Apps, select Apps & features, click Browse, and then locate and open the image the user wants to use as the wallpaper.
Answer: B
Explanation:
To change the desktop wallpaper on a Windows 10 computer using a Windows 10 Settings tool, the user should open Settings, select Personalization, click Browse, and then locate and open the image the user wants to use as the wallpaper1
https://www.lifewire.com/change-desktop-background-windows-11-5190733
NEW QUESTION # 37
A user's iPhone was permanently locked after several failed log-in attempts. Which of the following authentication methods are needed to restore access, applications, and data to the device?
- A. Fingerprint and pattern
- B. Recovery contact and recovery key
- C. Primary account and password
- D. Facial recognition and PIN code
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
If a user's iPhone is permanently locked after several failed log-in attempts, the user will need to use the recovery contact and recovery key to restore access, applications, and data to the device. The recovery contact is a trusted person who can receive a verification code from Apple and share it with the user. The recovery key is a 28-character code that the user created when setting up two-factor authentication for their Apple ID. The user will need to enter both the verification code and the recovery key on another device or computer to unlock their iPhone. This method will erase the iPhone and restore it from the iCloud backup
NEW QUESTION # 38
A user's antivirus software reports an infection that it is unable to remove. Which of the following is the most appropriate way to remediate the issue?
- A. Utilize a Linux live disc.
- B. Disable System Restore.
- C. Quarantine the infected system.
- D. Update the anti-malware.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Quarantining the infected system is the most appropriate way to remediate the issue of an infection that the antivirus software cannot remove. Quarantining means isolating the system from the network and other devices to prevent the infection from spreading or causing further damage. Quarantining also allows the technician to perform further analysis and removal of the infection without risking the security of other systems or data.
Some of the steps involved in quarantining an infected system are:
Disconnect the system from the internet and any local network connections, such as Wi-Fi, Ethernet, Bluetooth, or USB.
Disable any file-sharing or remote access services on the system, such as Windows File Sharing, Remote Desktop, or TeamViewer.
Use a separate device to download and update the antivirus software and any other tools that may be needed to remove the infection, such as malware scanners, rootkit removers, or bootable rescue disks.
Transfer the updated antivirus software and tools to the infected system using a removable media, such as a CD, DVD, or USB flash drive. Scan the removable media for any infections before and after using it on the infected system.
Run the antivirus software and tools on the infected system and follow the instructions to delete or quarantine the infection. If the infection is persistent or complex, it may require booting the system from a rescue disk or using a Linux live disc to access and clean the system files.
After the infection is removed, restore the system to a previous clean state using System Restore, backup, or recovery partition. Scan the system again to ensure that it is clean and secure. Reconnect the system to the network and update the system and the antivirus software.
References:
How to Identify and Repair Malware or Virus Infected Computers, section 31 Uninstalling Antivirus Software, the Clean Way: 40 Removal Tools & Instructions, section 22 How to manually remove an infected file from a Windows computer3 The Official CompTIA A+ Core 2 Study Guide (220-1102), page 2194
NEW QUESTION # 39
A technician successfully removed malicious software from an infected computer after running updates and scheduled scans to mitigate future risks. Which of the following should the technician do next?
- A. Educate the end user on best practices for security.
- B. Investigate how the system was infected with malware.
- C. Quarantine the host in the antivirus system.
- D. Create a system restore point.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Educating the end user on best practices for security is the next step that the technician should take after successfully removing malicious software from an infected computer. Educating the end user on best practices for security is an important part of preventing future infections and mitigating risks. The technician should explain to the end user how to avoid common sources of malware, such as phishing emails, malicious websites, or removable media. The technician should also advise the end user to use strong passwords, update software regularly, enable antivirus and firewall protection, and backup data frequently. Educating the end user on best practices for security can help the end user become more aware and responsible for their own security and reduce the likelihood of recurrence of malware infections. Quarantining the host in the antivirus system, investigating how the system was infected with malware, and creating a system restore point are not the next steps that the technician should take after successfully removing malicious software from an infected computer. Quarantining the host in the antivirus system is a step that the technician should take before removing malicious software from an infected computer. Quarantining the host in the antivirus system means isolating the infected computer from the network or other devices to prevent the spread of malware. Investigating how the system was infected with malware is a step that the technician should take during or after removing malicious software from an infected computer. Investigating how the system was infected with malware means identifying the source, type, and impact of malware on the system and documenting the findings and actions taken. Creating a system restore point is a step that the technician should take before removing malicious software from an infected computer. Creating a system restore point means saving a snapshot of the system's configuration and settings at a certain point in time, which can be used to restore the system in case of failure or corruption. Reference:
Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 15 CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) and Core 2 (220-1102) Cert Guide, page 458
NEW QUESTION # 40
A user wants to back up a device's OS and data. Which of the following is the best way to accomplish this task?
- A. Incremental backup
- B. System image
- C. System restore point
- D. Differential backup
Answer: B
Explanation:
A system image is a complete snapshot of everything on a device's storage at a given point in time, including the operating system, installed programs, system settings, and all user files. This method is the best way to back up the OS and data comprehensively because it allows for the restoration of a system to its exact state at the time the image was taken. This is particularly useful in disaster recovery scenarios where it's crucial to restore a system quickly and efficiently to minimize downtime.
NEW QUESTION # 41
A user receives the following error while attempting to boot a computer.
BOOTMGR is missing
press Ctrl+Alt+Del to restart
Which of the following should a desktop engineer attempt FIRST to address this issue?
- A. Reimage the workstation.
- B. Repair Windows.
- C. Partition the hard disk.
- D. Roll back the updates.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The error "BOOTMGR is missing" indicates that the boot sector is damaged or missing1. The boot sector is a part of the hard disk that contains the code and information needed to start Windows1. To fix this error, one of the possible methods is to run Startup Repair from Windows Recovery Environment (WinRE)1. Startup Repair is a tool that can automatically diagnose and repair problems with the boot process2.
References: 1: "Bootmgr is missing Press Ctrl+Alt+Del to restart" error when you start Windows (https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/topic/-bootmgr-is-missing-press-ctrl-alt-del-to-restart-error-when-you-start-
2: Startup Repair: frequently asked questions
(https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/startup-repair-frequently-asked-questions-f5f412a0-19c4-8e0a-9f6
NEW QUESTION # 42
A user reports a computer is running slow. Which of the following tools will help a technician identify the issue?
- A. Group Policy Editor
- B. Disk Cleanup
- C. Resource Monitor
- D. Disk Management
Answer: C
Explanation:
Resource Monitor is a Windows utility that can be used to monitor and analyze the system resources and processes running on a computer. It can be used to identify and troubleshoot any issues that might be causing the computer to run slowly, such as CPU usage, memory usage, disk I/O, and network usage.
NEW QUESTION # 43
A technician is setting up a newly built computer. Which of the following is the fastest way for the technician to install Windows 10?
- A. In-place upgrade
- B. System Restore
- C. Factory reset
- D. Unattended installation
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Unattended installation. An unattended installation is a way of installing Windows 10 without requiring any user input or interaction. It uses a configuration file called answer file that contains the settings and preferences for the installation, such as the product key, language, partition, and network settings. An unattended installation can be performed by using a bootable USB flash drive or DVD that contains the Windows 10 installation files and the answer file1. This is the fastest way for the technician to install Windows 10 on a newly built computer, as it automates the whole process and saves time.
A factory reset is a way of restoring a computer to its original state by deleting all the data and applications and reinstalling the operating system. A factory reset can be performed by using the recovery partition or media that came with the computer, or by using the Reset this PC option in Windows 10 settings2. A factory reset is not a way of installing Windows 10 on a newly built computer, as it requires an existing operating system to be present.
A system restore is a way of undoing changes to a computer's system files and settings by using a restore point that was created earlier. A system restore can be performed by using the System Restore option in Windows 10 settings or by using the Advanced Startup Options menu3. A system restore is not a way of installing Windows 10 on a newly built computer, as it requires an existing operating system and restore points to be present.
An in-place upgrade is a way of upgrading an existing operating system to a newer version without losing any data or applications. An in-place upgrade can be performed by using the Windows 10 Media Creation Tool or by running the Setup.exe file from the Windows 10 installation medi a. An in-place upgrade is not a way of installing Windows 10 on a newly built computer, as it requires an existing operating system to be present.
NEW QUESTION # 44
A technician is working on a Windows 10 PC that has unwanted applications starting on boot. Which of the following tools should the technician use to disable applications on startup?
- A. Group Policy Editor
- B. Performance Monitor
- C. System Configuration
- D. Task Manager
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Task Manager is the best tool to use to disable applications on startup in Windows 10. Task Manager is a built-in utility that shows the current processes, performance, and users on a system. It also has a Startup tab that lists the applications that run on boot and their impact on the system. The technician can use Task Manager to disable or enable any application on startup by right-clicking on it and selecting the appropriate option. System Configuration, Performance Monitor, and Group Policy Editor are other tools that can be used to manage system settings, but they are not as simple or convenient as Task Manager for this task. References:
Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 13 CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide: Core 1 Exam 220-1101 and Core 2 Exam ..., page 103
NEW QUESTION # 45
Which of the following would MOST likely be deployed to enhance physical security for a building? (Select TWO).
- A. Personal identification number
- B. Motion sensor
- C. Firewall
- D. Multifactor authentication
- E. Badge reader
- F. Soft token
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
Explanation
Badge reader and motion sensor are devices that can be deployed to enhance physical security for a building.
A badge reader is a device that scans and verifies an identification card or tag that grants access to authorized personnel only. A badge reader can help prevent unauthorized entry or intrusion into a building or a restricted area. A motion sensor is a device that detects movement and triggers an alarm or an action when motion is detected. A motion sensor can help deter or alert potential intruders or trespassers in a building or an area.
Multifactor authentication is a method of verifying identity using two or more factors, such as something you know, something you have or something you are. Multifactor authentication is not a device that can be deployed to enhance physical security for a building but a technique that can be used to enhance logical security for systems or services. Personal identification number is a numeric code that can be used as part of authentication or access control. Personal identification number is not a device that can be deployed to enhance physical security for a building but an example of something you know factor in multifactor authentication. Firewall is a device or software that filters network traffic based on rules and policies. Firewall is not a device that can be deployed to enhance physical security for a building but a device that can be used to enhance network security for systems or services. Soft token is an application or software that generates one-time passwords or codes for authentication purposes. Soft token is not a device that can be deployed to enhance physical security for a building but an example of something you have factor in multifactor authentication. References: CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1002) Certification Exam Objectives Version 4.0, Domain 3.3
NEW QUESTION # 46
A user wants to acquire antivirus software for a SOHO PC. A technician recommends a licensed software product, but the user does not want to pay for a license. Which of the following license types should the technician recommend?
- A. Open-source
- B. Corporate
- C. Enterprise
- D. Personal
Answer: A
Explanation:
Open-source software is software that has its source code available for anyone to inspect, modify, and distribute. Open-source software is usually free of charge and does not require a license to use. Some examples of open-source antivirus software are ClamAV, Comodo, and Immunet12. The other license types are either not free or not suitable for a SOHO PC. Corporate and enterprise licenses are designed for large-scale organizations and networks, and they usually require a subscription fee. Personal licenses are for individual users and may have limited features or support.
NEW QUESTION # 47
......
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